If we should understand the -o-, I have missed the explanation. There are quite few word pairs in dictionary with the same translation but one with -at and the other with -olat. Peterson ast ki: 'In the negative grade, a suffixed -o is added to the verb stem in the past tense,' but this just confuses me.
kemolat -past-> kemo -past negative-> (vos) kemoo
kemat -past-> kem -past negative-> (vos) kemo
No. I don't think so.
I don't see why that would be wrong. It seems correct.
We have two different verbs. One with the stem
kem and the other with the stem
kemo. The infinitive verb ending is -(l)at where the /l/ is used when a stem ends in a vowel which is why it's
kemolat and not
kemoat.
Kemoo is a perfectly grammatical word so I see no problem there and the only tricky part is confusing one
kemo with the other but that shouldn't be too hard since one sentence will have a negator and the other won't.
As for the words themselves, they don't translate to exactly the same.
Kemat is used for expressing that one part is marrying the other part as in "the groom marries the bride".
Kemolat is used for what the third party i.e. the priest is doing. "The priest married the groom to the bride". I guess you could translate it as "The priest officiated the marrige of the groom to the bride." or something like that.