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'to be' - sagon VS. 'to be (somewhere)' - ilagon

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livizza:
Hi!

According to

http://www.makinggameofthrones.com/production-diary/2014/5/8/high-valyrian-101-learn-and-pronounce-common-phrases

"they are" = "ilzi", as in
"Skoriot ñuhyz zaldrīzesse ilzi?" - "Where are my dragons"

BUT

According to the wiki source

http://wiki.dothraki.org/High_Valyrian_Verb_Conjugation

3pl present of 'sagon' = "issi"


Where's the mistake or is "ilzi" some special form of sagon I don't know about?

Thanks a lot.

Qvaak:
Mad Latinist's Livejournal gives an answer: http://jdm314.livejournal.com/200744.html


--- Quote ---    Where are my dragons? 

    Skoriot ñuhyz zaldrīzesse ilzi?

Only thing to note here, really, is that he's previously given this phrase as "SKORIOT ÑUHYZ ZALDRĪZESSE ISSI?!" Ilzi makes total sense: many language distinguish "to be {something}" from "to be {somewhere}," and this fits in well with the AV use of las (that's mostly used with adjectives, unlike HV, but cf. the YV for "Who goes there?", which, having reviewed the scene, I'm now thinking is "*Val konir las?") It remains to be seen if issa is incorrect in this context (aliquando bonus dormitat Homerus...), or if either alternative is permitted.
--- End quote ---

So ilzi is a conjugation of ilagon (http://wiki.dothraki.org/High_Valyrian_Vocabulary#ilagon).

livizza:
aaah :) thanks a lot!

livizza:
one further question, as i can't seem to find it anywhere:

thus, the correct conjugation of 'ilagon' - to lie/ to be _somewhere_ - just like 'estar' in Spanish :) - would be:

1s  ilan             
2s  ilā
3s  ilza, ilsa, ilas

1pl  ili
2pl  ilāt
3pl  ilzi, ilsi, ilis

?

thx :)

Qvaak:
Well, the conjugation page says with liquid ending -za is mandatory, so I think

1s  ilan
2s  ilā
3s  ilza

1pl  ili
2pl  ilāt
3pl  ilzi

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